PSI State Practice Exam

PSI Practice Exam 1

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Question 1

Which of the following would not be considered real property?

A	Mineral rights.
B	Air.
C	A leasehold state.
D	Fixtures.

Question 1 Explanation:

A lease hold estate is a non-freehold estate involving the tenant's right to occupy the real estate during the term of the lease.

Question 2

The servient estate in an easement appurtenant is the property

A	owned by the tenant.
B	that benefits from the easement.
C	on which the easement is placed.
D	owned by the landlord.

Question 2 Explanation:

Servient estate is also referred to as a servient tenemant.

Question 3

Which of the following statements concerning encumbrances is false?

A	An easement is a physical encumbrance.
B	All encumbrances are liens.
C	Restrictions beneficial to the grantee are encumbrances.
D	All liens are encumbrances.

Question 3 Explanation:

Encumbrances may be liens. However, an easement is an example of an encumbrance that is not a lien. Therefore, not all encumbrances are liens, but it is true that all liens are encumbrances.

Question 4

Which is not a specific lien?

A	Mortgage lien.
B	real estate taxes.
C	State inheritance taxes.
D	Mechanic's lien.

Question 4 Explanation:

State inheritance taxes are a general lien and affect all the debtor's property.

Question 5

What would your lease be an example of if you are required to pay 20% of the owner's expenses?

A	Percent lease.
B	Net lease.
C	Variable lease.
D	Gross lease.

Question 5 Explanation:

Tenants on a net lease must pay rent plus all or part of the property charges.

Question 6

If a wife and her husband own an apartment building and the wife owns a total of three-fourths interest and the husband owns a one-fourth interest, what kind of tenancy exists?

A	Tenancy by the entirety.
B	Leasehold estate.
C	Joint tenancy.
D	Tenancy in common.

Question 6 Explanation:

Tenancy in common allows for percentage differences in ownership.

Question 7

What is the highest form of ownership interest a person may hold in real estate?

A	Legal life estate.
B	Life estate.
C	Fee simple.
D	Base fee.

Question 7 Explanation:

The highest form of interest is a fee simple.

Question 8

When two people own a five unit apartment building as tenants in common and one wants to sell, but the other doesn't, which one of the following statements describes the legal rights of the party who wants to sell?

A	the party may require the co-owner to sell.
B	The party may record a lis pendens on the property.
C	The party may request a court to partition the building.
D	The party may refinance the mortgage in her or his own name, thus eliminating the co-owner's interest in the property.

Question 8 Explanation:

The tenants may partition the property by agreement and, if no agreement, by judicial determination.

Question 9

In which way would you acquire the title of a home that belonged to your uncle that died in intestate and you are the inheritor?

A	Laches.
B	Escheat.
C	Descent.
D	Curtesy.

Question 9 Explanation:

When a person dies intestate, the decedent's real estate and personal property pass to his or her heirs according to the statutes.

Question 10

Which of the following statements does not describe a legal estate?

A	There may be a remainder interest.
B	During his or her life estate, the life tenant is generally answerable to the holder of the future interest.
C	The life tenant may not commit any acts that would permanently injure the property.
D	There may be a reversionary interest.

Question 10 Explanation:

The life tenant generally is not answerable to the holder of the future interest.

Question 11

Which of the following isn't an example of a leasehold estate?

A	Periodic estate.
B	An estate for years.
C	Estate from year to year.
D	Time-share estate.

Question 11 Explanation:

A time-share estate may include a fee-simple interest in condominium ownership.

Question 12

Can a state use eminent domain to acquire land for the purpose of building a publicly owned convention center to attract private development in its largest city?

A	Yes, if the owners hold fee-simple interest in the land.
B	No, because private investments would not be allowed.
C	Yes, if just compensation is paid to the owners of the land.
D	No, because eminent domain can only be used for highway expansion.

Question 12 Explanation:

As long as the owner of the land receives just compensation, the government has the right to acquire the private property for public use.

Question 13

The city in which you live has a zoning ordinance. What is the basis for the city to have such an ordinance?

A	Police power.
B	Riparian right.
C	Eminent domain.
D	Escheat.

Question 13 Explanation:

Police power is the power of the state to establish legislation to protect public health and safety and promote general welfare.

Question 14

All of the following terms are related except for

A	Grantor - person conveying title.
B	Leasehold estate - personal property.
C	Police power - deed restriction.
D	Freehold estate - fee simple.

Question 14 Explanation:

A deed restriction is a private-land-use control; police power is a public-land-use control.

Question 15

What does it mean when there is strict liability under Superfund?

A	The owner is not responsible to the injured party unless it can be proved that the owner was aware of the problem.
B	Each of the individual owners is personally responsible for the damages in whole.
C	The liability is not limited to the person who currently owns the property but also includes people who have owned the site in the past.
D	The owner is responsible to the injured party without excuse.

Question 15 Explanation:

Strict liability means that “fault” is not required in order to establish a party’s liability.

Question 16

Which of the following incorrectly describes how real estate licensees should handle the possibility of hazardous substances on a property being sold?

A	Licensees should not disclose the problem because it might harm the seller.
B	Licensees should be scrupulous in considering environmental issues.
C	Clients should be asked about the possibility of hazardous substances on the property.
D	Licensees should consider the consequences of potential liability,

Question 16 Explanation:

The last three answers describe how licensees should handle that type of transaction.

Question 17

Which of the following statements is not included in sources of groundwater contamination?

A	Radon.
B	Waste disposal sites.
C	Use of pesticides in farming communities.
D	Underground storage tanks.

Question 17 Explanation:

Radon is an odorless radioactive gas released from rocks under the earth's surface; it usually is released into the atmosphere.

Question 18

Your neighbor has given you revocable permission to go camping on his land. This give you a(n)

A	License.
B	Defeasible fee estate.
C	Leasehold estate.
D	Easement appurtenant.

Question 18 Explanation:

License is permission to enter the land of another for a specific purpose and maybe be revoke by the owner of the property at any time.

Question 19

All of the following terms describe a claim based on adverse possession of property except

A	Hostile.
B	Notorious.
C	Secretive.
D	Open.

Question 19 Explanation:

A claim based on adverse possession must be notorious, open and hostile.

Question 20

When real property is given by a will to someone, that person is called

A	Hypothecator.
B	Testator.
C	Trustee.
D	Devisee.

Question 20 Explanation:

Devise refers to a transfer of real property under a will.

Question 21

Where would riparian rights exist?

A	Condominium on a bay.
B	A hotel whose land abuts a large lake.
C	A cooperative on a river.
D	House on a bay.

Question 21 Explanation:

Riparian rights are water rights granted to owners along a river or stream.

Question 22

If a developer purchases two adjoining single-family lots for 50,000 each and combines the lots into one parcel with a value of 135,000, this action reflects the process of

A	Exchange.
B	Plottage.
C	Attachment.
D	Accession.

Question 22 Explanation:

Plottage is the process of combining adjacent parcels of land to form one larger parcel. Typically the value of the whole parcel will be greater than the sum of the individual smaller parcels.

Question 23

A retail store opens in a neighborhood and was gaining substantial profits. Within a year, another retail store opens, causing the first stores profits to drop 40%. This is an example of

A	Highest and best use.
B	Progression.
C	Competition.
D	Conformity.

Question 23 Explanation:

The principle of competition states that excess profits create ruinous competition.

Question 24

A meatpacking plant was built near your home. Due to the smell, property values are lowering in the neighborhood. The drop in value would be classified as

A	Physical deterioration.
B	External obsolescence.
C	Functional obsolescence.
D	The principle of change.

Question 24 Explanation:

External obsolescence refers to a loss of value outside the property.

Question 25

What method would an appraiser use in the appraisal of a public building?

A	Gross rent multiplier.
B	Sales comparison.
C	Cost approach.
D	Income capitalization approach.

Question 25 Explanation:

The cost approach is considered most reliable in the appraisal of special-purpose buildings, such as churches and schools.

Question 26

A five-bedroom house with one bathroom would be an example of

A	Economic obsolescence.
B	Environmental obsolescence.
C	Physical deterioration.
D	Functional obsolescence.

Question 26 Explanation:

Functional obsolescence is a loss in the value of a property resulting from a deficiency in the floor plan of the house.

Question 27

All of the following statements are stages in the appraisal process except

A	Reconcile the data for the final value estimate.
B	Analyze and interpret the data.
C	Analyze the tax consequences of the property owner.
D	State the problem.

Question 27 Explanation:

Tax consequences would be analyzed in a feasibility study exploring the potential for profitability in a proposed project.

Question 28

If an appraiser uses the cost approach in appraising a home, which type of information should he not use?

A	Economic obsolescence.
B	Depreciation of land.
C	Physical deterioration.
D	The cost of replacement of the house.

Question 28 Explanation:

Depreciation generally is applied to a wasting asset. Land is not considered a wasting asset.

Question 29

A house that is the least expensive in its neighborhood has grown in value over the years due to the increasing number of more expensive houses being built around it. This growth in value is an example of the principle of

A	Competition.
B	Progression.
C	Highest and best use.
D	Regression.

Question 29 Explanation:

The principle of progression states that the value of less expensive properties will increase when placed in the area of more expensive properties.

Question 30

You have a house that you hope to list for sale. When preparing a competitive market analysis for that house, which of the following approaches to value will be used in the development of the estimated value?

A	Sales comparison approach.
B	Cost approach.
C	Gross rent multiplier.
D	Income approach.

Question 30 Explanation:

The gross rent multiplier is used as a substitute for the income approach in the valuation of a single-family home.The income approach is used in the appraisal of an income-producing property. The cost approach is applicable to the appraisal of special-purpose properties.

Question 31

What does a competitive market analysis reflect the use of?

A	Sales comparison approach.
B	Gross-rent-multiplier method.
C	Income approach.
D	Cost approach.

Question 31 Explanation:

The sales comparison approach relies on comparable sales, as well as sales that involve willing buyers and sellers.

Question 32

Two banks hold a lien on a home. The Second bank already had a lien before the First bank. The lenders subsequently entered into an agreement in which the First bank moved into a first lien position. What is this an example of?

A	Subordination agreement.
B	Reverse annuity mortgage.
C	Hypothecation agreement.
D	Disintermediation agreement.

Question 32 Explanation:

A subordination agreement is used to make the claim of one party junior to, or inferior to, a claim in favor of another. It is generally used to grant first lien status to a lienholder who would otherwise be secondary to another party, with the approval of the party that would otherwise have the first lien.

Question 33

Which of the following is likely to occur if the Federal Reserve Board raises its discount rate?

A	Interest rates will decline.
B	Mortgage money will become more available.
C	Interest rates will stay the same.
D	Mortgage money will become less available.

Question 33 Explanation:

Mortgage money will become less available because of the increased cost of borrowing.

Question 34

What is it called when you have a mortgage in which you make a payment each month for principal and interest, but from month-to-month, the principal payment increases and the interest payment decreases?

A	Partially amortized mortgage.
B	Amortized mortgage.
C	Term mortgage.
D	Reverse annuity mortgage.

Question 34 Explanation:

A partially amortized loan also involves a lump-sum or balloon payment at maturity. A term mortgage allows for payment of interest only with a lump-sum balloon payment at maturity.

Question 35

When government related loans are purchased, which agency would be involved?

A	The "Fed".
B	Fannie Mae.
C	Ginnie Mae.
D	Freddie Mac.

Question 35 Explanation:

Ginnie Mae purchases FHA-insured, VA-guaranteed, and Rural Development loans on the secondary mortgage market.

Question 36

Which of the following agencies isn't included in secondary mortgage market?

A	GNMA.
B	FHLMC.
C	FHA.
D	FNMA.

Question 36 Explanation:

FHA insures mortgages made in the primary mortgage market.

Question 37

Loans subject to the Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act (RESPA) obliges lenders to

A	deliver a Uniform Settlement Statement (HUD-1) form to both buyer and seller.
B	allow the buyer to rescind the contract any time prior to the first payment due date.
C	charge the seller for all loan discount points.
D	document any reason for declining credit to a loan applicant.

Question 37 Explanation:

RESPA provides for the use of a HUD-1 form.

Question 38

Once you have made final payment on your mortgage, which of the following documents will provide notice that the mortgage lien has been removed?

A	Reversion of the deed.
B	Reconveyance deed.
C	Alienation of the mortgage instrument.
D	Satisfaction of mortgage.

Question 38 Explanation:

A reconveyance clause is used to release the lien created by a trust deed. A reversion clause could be used in a deed and stipulates that if not complied with, the property reverts to the owner. An alienation clause states that if the borrower sells the property, the lender has the choice of either declaring the entire debt due and payable or allowing the buyer to assume the laon.

Question 39

Salesperson Christopher is acting as a buyer's agent for broker Thomas. Christopher is trying to sell the same home salesperson Peralta for broker Barnes has listed to his buyer. Christopher is primarily responsible to whom?

A	Broker Thomas.
B	Broker Barnes.
C	Salesperson Peralta.
D	His own buyer.

Question 39 Explanation:

Salesperson Christoper is responsible to his broker Thomas. As an exclusive buyer's agent, an indirect relationship would exist between the broker and the buyer because all exclusive buyer-agency agreements are the property of the broker.

Question 40

The listing broker, in most states, has a fiduciary duty with who?

A	The principal
B	The buyer.
C	The customer.
D	The listing salesperson.

Question 40 Explanation:

The agent and the principal (client) must have a fiduciary relationship. The listing broker does not automatically have a fiduciary duty to the buyer or customer.

Question 41

A homeowner employed a broker as an agent to sell his home. Which of the following statements incorrectly describes the broker's relationship to the owner?

A	The broker is a general agent.
B	The broker has become the seller's agent.
C	The broker owes fiduciary duty to the seller.
D	The broker is a special agent.

Question 41 Explanation:

The broker would be a special agent authorized to represent the principal in one specific transaction.

Question 42

Someone lists a home that was subsequently sold by six cooperating outside brokers. What is the number of seller-agency relationships that are involved in this transaction?

A	Six.
B	One.
C	Seven.
D	Three.

Question 42 Explanation:

In the absence of state law, the six cooperating brokers are not agents of the seller.

Question 43

If a salesperson transfers to another brokerage firm but three weeks prior listed a home for sale, what would be the status of the listing?

A	The listing will stay with the former brokerage firm of the salesperson.
B	The listing is terminated.
C	The listing is transferred to the new brokerage.
D	The two brokerage firms will negotiate to decide who will hold the listing.

Question 43 Explanation:

An agency relationship between the seller and the salesperson's brokerage was formed once the salesperson listed the home. Therefore, the listing belongs to the brokerage.

Question 44

A salesperson accorded an offer that was accepted, then he received an earnest money payment for $1,500. What should the salesperson do with the payment?

A	Deposit the payment in the seller's checking account.
B	Open up a trust account and deposit the payment in it.
C	Give the earnest money to his broker.
D	Hold the payment until the buyer has received a financing commitment.

Question 44 Explanation:

The brokerage firm must place all earnest money in the firm's trust account.

Question 45

You are working as a buyer's broker for a client. Which of the following does not describe your role as a buyer's broker?

A	You should counsel the buyer about developing accurate objectives.
B	You should search for the best properties for your buyer to inspect, widening the marketplace to include homes for sale by owners (FSBOs).
C	You should help the buyer prepare the strongest offer.
D	You should show the buyer properties only in which your commission is protected.

Question 45 Explanation:

In this case, the broker has a fiduciary relationship with the buyer for he is the buyer's broker.

Question 46

A real estate broker, according to the law of agency, does not owe the principal which of the following duties?

A	Conforming with the principal's legal instructions.
B	Offering legal advice.
C	Acting in good faith.
D	Exercising reasonable care.

Question 46 Explanation:

Only a licensed attorney may offer legal advice, the broker can not.

Question 47

When a broker is acting as the agent of a seller, he or she

A	must maintain as confidential all information the principal says not to disclose.
B	must report all offers to the principal unless instructed otherwise.
C	can agree to a change in the listing price without the principal's approval.
D	may share his commission with the salesperson of another broker.

Question 47 Explanation:

The broker, unless instructed otherwise, is responsible for submitting all offers to his or her principal.

Question 48

After a sale was completed in which a broker listed a residential property under a valid written listing agreement, the owner refuses to pay the broker's fee. What can the broker do from the following statements?

A	He is entitled to a lien on the seller's property for the amount of the commission.
B	He can take the seller to court and sue for the commission.
C	He can collect the commission from the buyer.
D	He can go to court and stop the transaction until he is paid.

Question 48 Explanation:

The broker cannot collect the commission from the buyer because the buyer is not in the agency relationship between seller and broker. In most states, the broker has no lien on a property for a commission due on negotiating the sale of that property. Therefore, the broker may not go to court to stop the transaction. But in some states, a broker may place a lien on a property if in compliance with the statute.

Question 49

What determines commissions and fees paid by the seller to a listing agency?

A	Applying the prevailing customary fees charged in that area.
B	An industry index computed monthly from multiple-listing service data.
C	Negotiations between the seller and the listing licensee.
D	Standards promulgated by the local board of REALTORS.

Question 49 Explanation:

The commission is negotiable; brokers are not required to charge a commission.

Question 50

Which of the following events must occur so that a listing broker is considered to have earned a commission from a principal?

A	The title has been transferred to the buyer.
B	An offer to purchase has been presented to the client.
C	A "ready, willing. and able buyer" signs a non contingent or cash offer that meets the terms of the listing contract.
D	The seller accepts and signs an offer to purchase.

Question 50 Explanation:

It is generally when the broker produces a "ready, willing, and able" buyer.

Question 51

A homeowner allows a broker to list his home. The broker then receives an offer from another licensee that meets all of the listing terms and conditions, but after considering the offer the owner informs the broker that he no longer wishes to sell and ask to be released immediately from the listing agreement. Which of the following statements accurately describes the broker's position in this situation?

A	The broker must tell the owner that the offeror may sue for specific performance.
B	The broker may succeed in collecting an earned commission from the owner.
C	The broker may keep the earnest money that accompanied the offer as liquidated damages.
D	The broker must release the owner without obligation.

Question 51 Explanation:

The broker may be able to sue the owner for damages; although the owner has the power to terminate the listing contract, he does not necessarily have the right to.

Question 52

On February 12th, an owner entered into a six-month exclusive-right-to-sell agreement for a residential property with a salesperson. On March 26th, the owner rejected a low offer and fired the listing agent. On April 5th, there was a flood that required extensive floor repairs. On May 18th, the owner entered into another exclusive-right-to-sell agreement with a salesperson from a different agency. By July 12th, the property was still unsold. The first listing agreement was most likely to terminate on which day and why?

A	July 12, because the first listing agreement ended at midnight on July 11.
B	March 26, because the salesperson was dismissed.
C	April 5, because the listed property suffered material damage.
D	May 18, because the owner breached the first listing agreement by signing a second.

Question 52 Explanation:

The dismissal of the salesperson does not affect the listing since the broker, not the salesperson, is a party to the contract. Signing a second listing while the first listing is still active is a clear breach of contract.

Question 53

Prior to being exercised, an option is an example of

A	an executed contract.
B	an assignable contract.
C	a unilateral contract.
D	a bilateral contract.

Question 53 Explanation:

An option is a promise to keep open for a specified period an offer to sell or purchase property. Therefore, an option is an example of a unilateral contract.

Question 54

An exclusive-agency listing and an exclusive-right-to-sell listing have which of the following similarity between each other?

A	Both give the responsibility of representing the seller to just on brokerage firm.
B	Both are net listings.
C	Under both, the seller authorizes one specific salesperson to show the property.
D	Under both, the seller avoids paying the brokerage a commission if the seller sells the property without the help of the brokerage.

Question 54 Explanation:

The broker receives a commission regardless of who sells the property, under an exclusive-right-to-sell listing. But the exclusive-agency listing allows the seller to sell his or her own house without paying the broker commission. Either type is given only one broker.

Question 55

If a buyer enters into an agency agreement with multiple buyer agents, but only owes compensation to the agent who puts a transaction together, this arrangement is known as a(n)

A	non-exclusive agency agreement.
B	Multiple-listing agreement.
C	exclusive right agreement.
D	exclusive agency agreement.

Question 55 Explanation:

The buyer-nonexclusive agency agreement is similar to an open listing-seller agreement.

Question 56

Out of the following types of clauses, which determines the right of a listing broker to collect a commission from an owner who waits until the listing period expires, and then proceeds to sell the property to a party that broker had shown the property to during the listing period?

A	Defeasance.
B	Protection.
C	Habendum.
D	Alienation.

Question 56 Explanation:

A broker is entitled commission even after the listing expires if the property is sold to someone who was introduced to the property by the broker. This is stipulated in a clause within the standard listings. Usually, there is a time period written into the clause, which is called the protection clause.

Question 57

If you wrote an offer on a house for 135,000 and the seller gives you a counteroffer for 145,000, the seller may withdraw the counteroffer at what time?

A	Prior to closing.
B	Prior to the removal of all contingencies in the offer.
C	Within 72 hours after acceptance.
D	Prior to the buyer's acceptance.

Question 57 Explanation:

Any offer or counteroffer may be withdrawn at any time prior to the acceptance by the offeree.

Question 58

You leased and took possession of an apartment for one year. You continued to live in the apartment, even after the lease expired without the owner's consent. What would your tenancy be considered?

A	Tenancy at will.
B	Tenancy at sufferance.
C	Estate from year to year.
D	Estate for years.

Question 58 Explanation:

When you are a tenant at sufferance you continue to hold possession without consent of the landlord.

Question 59

What is a commercial lease that allows rent to be decreased or increased periodically based on changes in economic indicators?

A	Gross lease
B	Graduated lease.
C	Index lease.
D	Percentage lease.

Question 59 Explanation:

An index lease is adjusted periodically based on changes in an agreed cost-of-living index.

Question 60

In theory, out of the following types of deeds, which grants to a property buyer the most protection against problems that may arise with the title?

A	General warranty.
B	Quitclaim.
C	Bargain and sale.
D	Special warranty.

Question 60 Explanation:

A special warranty against title defects during the grantor's time of ownership. The quitclaim deed is the least protective because it makes no expressed or implied warranties. The general warranty deed with title insurance provides the grantee with the most protection.

Question 61

A homeowner has entered into an installment land contract for the sale of his home. All of the following statements are true except

A	the buyer will hold a legal title during the term of the contract.
B	the buyer will hold an equitable title during the term of the contract.
C	the buyer is the vendee.
D	the buyer will take possession when the contract is signed by both parties.

Question 61 Explanation:

The buyer, who is the vendee, will not receive the deed until the entire land contract has been paid in full.

Question 62

Which of the following usually conveys personal property?

A	Certificate of title.
B	Quitclaim deed.
C	Trust deed.
D	Bill of sale.

Question 62 Explanation:

Real property is conveyed by deed.

Question 63

What would the movement of a piece of land, caused by an earthquake, be an example of?

A	Avulsion.
B	Erosion.
C	Hypothecation.
D	Accretion.

Question 63 Explanation:

Avulsion is the sudden removal of soil by an act of nature.

Question 64

Recording the deed, while property is being transferred from one party to another, provides what is called

A	validation of the agreement between the parties.
B	constructive notice.
C	a writ of attachment.
D	certificate of title.

Question 64 Explanation:

Deeds are recorded to establish priority and provide protection against third parties.

Question 65

When would it be allowed if a salesperson does not wish to include the brokerage name in the advertising of a property?

A	The salesperson is the actual owner and advertising as a for sale by owner.
B	The salesperson is willing to pay for the ad.
C	The salesperson is the listing agent.
D	The salesperson includes his or her name in the ad.

Question 65 Explanation:

A sales agent is prohibited by most state laws from advertising listed property without using the name of the brokerage in the ad, whether they are the listing agent or willing to pay for the ad. The one exception is if the agent wishes to advertise the sale of his own property. Usually, these sales don't involve the brokerage; they resemble for-sale-by-owner transactions

Question 66

When a broker violates the Sherman Antitrust Act, he or she may be punishable by a maximum fine of

A	$25,000.
B	$100,000.
C	$75,000.
D	$15,000.

Question 66 Explanation:

In addition to the $100,000 maximum fine, the broker may also have to serve up to three years in prison.

Question 67

The Civil Rights Act of 1866 prohibits discrimination based on what?

A	Sex.
B	Disability.
C	Familial status.
D	Race.

Question 67 Explanation:

Both familial status and disability became protected classes in 1988; sex became protected in 1974.

Question 68

Broker Paul showed buyer Lee, who is of Asian decent, homes only in Asian neighborhoods. The broker is possibly guilty of

A	steering.
B	arbitrage.
C	blockbusting.
D	redlining.

Question 68 Explanation:

Steering refers to the practice in which real estate brokers guide potential home buyers towards or away from certain neighborhoods based on their race.

Question 69

All of the following categories are protected by Federal Fair Housing Laws against discrimination in housing except for

A	familial status.
B	sexual orientation.
C	national origin.
D	race.

Question 69 Explanation:

The federal fair housing laws does not include sexual orientation, age, or marital status in their protected arrangements.

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PSI State Practice Exam

PSI Practice Exam 1

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